The
combined defence services 2 2018 recruitment examination released by UPSC on 8th
August 2018 for various 414 post in IMA, OTA, INA, Indian Air force and other
division. The online Application has been started since the notification
announcement date. Candidates can apply for UPSC CDS 2 2018 Part-I &
Part-II Registration from the activated link given below. The last date to
apply online for CDS 2 2018 is 3rd September. Interested candidates can check
UPSC CDS 2 2018 exam date, total vacancies, online application, qualification
& age limit criteria, exam pattern, syllabus, selection process, salary and
more.
CDS
Exam Conducted Under UPSC
Combined
Defence Services (CDS) recruitment exam is conducted by UPSC for the
recruitment to different posts of Indian Air Force Academy, Officer Training
Academy, India Military Academy & Indian Naval Academy. This National Level
Entrance exam is conducted twice a year, first in the Month of February and
second in the month of November. CDS exam is one of the biggest opportunities
for candidates who want to pursue a career in this field. Women/girls can also
apply for the CDS exam under the posts of Officer Training Academy (OTA) only.
CDS Recruitment Exam 2018 Notification
Summary
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Apply Online for CDS 2 2018
Recruitment Exam
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Apply Now!
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CDS 2018 Important Date
Events
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Dates
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8th August 2018
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3rd September 2018
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November 2018
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18th November 2018
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December 2018
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Before 1 Month of Joining
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CDS 2018 Vacancy
The
CDS 2 2018 recruitment exams is conducted under UPSC on 18th
November 2018 to get the admission in the following courses:
CDS Course
|
Total Vacancies
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100
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45
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Indian Air Force Academy, Hyderabad
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32
|
Officers Training Academy, Chennai (Men)
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225
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Officers Training Academy, Chennai (Women)
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12
|
CDS
2 Online Application Form 2018
The
online candidate’s registration form for UPSC CDS 2 2018 application forms is
already started on official site of UPSC. The applicants are required to fill
in the correct details and submit it before the last date. The link for online
application is available on the UPSC official website. Applicant can start
submitting the online application form until the last date 3
rd
September 2018. Candidates are required to apply online by using the website
www.upsconline.nic.in Brief
instructions for filling up the online Application Form have been given in the
Appendix-II. Detailed instructions are available on the above mentioned
website.
Last Date for Submission of Online
Applications form for CDS 2018:
The
Online Applications can be filled up to 3rd September, 2018 till
6:00 PM.
CDS
2018 Salary - The salary of all CDS posts is as follow:
Post
|
Salary
|
Lieutenant Level 10
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Rs. 56,100 - 1,77,500
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Captain Level 10 B
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Rs. 6,13,00 - 1,93,900
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Major Level 11
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Rs. 6,94,00 – 2,07,200
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Lieutenant Colonel Level 12A
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Rs. 1,21,200 – 2,12400
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Colonel Level 13
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Rs. 1,30,600-2, 15,90
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Brigadier Level 13A
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Rs. 1,39,600-2,17,600
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Major General Level 14
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Rs. 1,44,200-2,18,200
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Lieutenant General HAG Scale Level 15
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Rs. 1,82,200 - 2,24,100
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HAG Scale Level 16
|
Rs. 2,05,400 – 2,24,400
|
VCOAS/Army Cdr/ Lieutenant General (NFSG) Level 17
|
Rs. 2,25,000/-(fixed)
|
COAS Level 18
|
Rs. 2,50,000/-(fixed)
|
CDS 2018 Eligibility Criteria
(a) Nationality: A candidate must be
unmarried and must either be:
- a Citizen of India, or
- a subject of Bhutan, or
- a subject of Nepal, or
- a Tibetan refugee who came over to India before
the 1st January, 1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India, or
- a person of Indian origin who has migrated from
Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka and East African Countries of Kenya, Uganda, the
United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire and Ethiopia or Vietnam with
the intention of permanently settling in India. Provided that a candidate
belonging to categories (ii), (iii), (IV) and (v) above shall be a person in
whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of
India. Certificate of eligibility will, however, not be necessary in the case
of candidates who are Gorkha subjects of Nepal. A candidate in whose case a
certificate of eligibility is necessary, may be admitted to the examination
provisionally subject to the necessary certificate being given to him/her by
the Govt. before declaration of result by UPSC.
(b) Age Limits, Sex and Marital Status:
- For IMA—Unmarried male candidates born not
earlier than 2nd July, 1995 and not later than 1st July, 2000 only are
eligible.
- For Indian Naval Academy—Unmarried male
candidates born not earlier than 2 nd July, 1995 and not later than 1st July,
2000 only are eligible.
- For Air Force Academy-20 to 24 years as on 1st
July, 2019 i.e. born not earlier than 2nd July, 1995 and not later than 1st
July, 1999 (Upper age limit for candidates holding valid and current Commercial
Pilot License issued by DGCA (India) is relax able up to 26 yrs. i.e. born not
earlier than 2nd July, 1993 and not later than 1st July, 1999) only are
eligible. Note:
Candidate below 25 years of age must be unmarried. Marriage is not permitted
during training. Married candidates above 25 years of age are eligible to apply
but during training period they will neither be provided married accommodation
nor can they live with family out of the premises.
- For Officers' Training Academy—(SSC Course for men) unmarried male candidates
born not earlier than 2nd July, 1994 and not later than 1st July, 2000 only are
eligible.
- For Officers' Training Academy—(SSC Women Non-Technical Course) Unmarried
women, issue less widows who have not remarried and issueless divorcees (in
possession of divorce documents) who have not remarried are eligible. They
should have been born not earlier than 2nd July, 1994 and not later than 1st
July, NOTE:
Male divorcee/widower candidates cannot be treated as unmarried male for the
purpose of their admission in IMA/INA/AFA courses and accordingly they are not
eligible for these courses. The date of birth accepted by the Commission is
that entered in the Matriculation/Secondary School Examination Certificate or
in a certificate recognized by an Indian University as equivalent to
Matriculation or in an extract from a Register of Matriculates maintained by a
University, which extract must be certified by the proper authority of the
University or in the Matriculation/Secondary School Examination or an
equivalent examination certificate. These certificates are required to be
submitted only after the declaration of the result of the written part of the
examination. No other document relating to age like horoscopes, affidavits,
birth extracts from Municipal Corporation, service records and the like will be
accepted. The expression Matriculation/Secondary School Examination Certificate
in this part of the instruction includes the alternative certificates mentioned
above. Sometimes the Matriculation/Secondary School Examination Certificate
does not show the date of birth, or only shows the age by completed years or
completed years and months. In such cases a candidate must send in addition to
the self attested/certified copy of Matriculation/Secondary School Examination
Certificate a self attested/certified copy of a certificate from the
Headmaster/Principal of the Institution from where he/she passed the Matriculation/Secondary
School Examination showing the date of his/her birth or exact age as recorded
in the Admission Register of the Institution.
NOTE
1: Candidates should note that only the Date of Birth as recorded in the Matriculation/Secondary
School Examination Certificate or an equivalent certificate on the date of
submission of applications will be accepted by the Commission and no subsequent
request for its change will be considered or granted.
NOTE
2: Candidates should also note that once a Date of Birth has been claimed by
them and entered in the records of the Commission for the purpose of admission to
an Examination, no change will be allowed subsequently or at a subsequent examination
on any ground whatsoever.
NOTE
3: The candidates should exercise due care while entering their date of birth.
If on verification at any subsequent stage any variation is found in their date
of birth from the one entered in their Matriculation or equivalent examination certificate,
disciplinary action will be taken against them by the Commission under the
Rules.
(c) Educational Qualifications:
- For I.M.A. and Officers’ Training Academy— Degree of a recognized University or
equivalent.
- For Indian Naval Academy—Degree in Engineering from a recognized University/Institution.
-
For Air Force Academy—Degree of a recognized University (with Physics and Mathematics
at 10+2 level) or Bachelor of Engineering. Graduates with first choice as
Army/Navy/Air Force are to submit proof of graduation provisional certificates
on the date of commencement of the SSB Interview at the SSB. Candidates who are
studying in the final year/semester Degree course and have yet to pass the
final year degree examination can also apply provided candidate should not have
any present backlog upto the last semester / year for which results have been
declared upto the time of submission of application and they will be required
to submit proof of passing the degree examination at the time of commencement
of course to reach the IHQ of MoD (Army), Rtg ‘A’, CDSE Entry, West Block III,
R. K. Puram, New Delhi-110066 in case of IMA/SSC first choice candidates and Naval
HQ “DMPR” (OI & R Section), Room No. 204, ‘C’ Wing, Sena Bhawan, New Delhi-110011
in case of Navy first choice candidates and PO3(A)/Air Headquarters, ‘J’ Block,
Room No. 17, Opp. Vayu Bhawan, Motilal Nehru Marg, New Delhi-110 106 in case of
Air Force first choice candidates by the following dates failing which their candidature
will stand cancelled :
- For admission to IMA on or before 1st July, 2019, Indian Naval Academy on or before
1st July, 2019 and Air Force Academy on or before 13th May, 2019.
- For admission to Officers' Training Academy, Chennai on or before 1st October, 2019.
Candidates possessing professional and technical qualifications which are
recognized by government as equivalent to professional and technical degrees would
also be eligible for admission to the examination. In exceptional cases the
Commission may treat a candidate, who does not possess any of the
qualifications prescribed in this rule as educationally qualified provided that
he/she possesses qualifications, the standard of which in the opinion of the Commission,
justifies his/her admission to the examination.
NOTE
I: Candidates, who have yet to pass their degree examination, will be eligible
only if they are studying in the final year of degree examination. Those candidates
who have yet to qualify in the final year Degree Examination and are allowed to
appear in the UPSC Examination should note that this is only a special concession
given to them. They are required to submit proof of passing the Degree Examination
by the prescribed date and no request for extending this date will be entertained
on the grounds of late conduct of basic qualifying University Examination,
delay in declaration of results or any other ground whatsoever. Candidates who
are studying in the final year/semester degree course are required to submit at
the time of SSB interview a bonafide certificate issued by University/College
stating that they will be able to submit their proof of passing the graduation
degree examination by the specified date, failing which their candidature will
be cancelled.
NOTE
II: Candidates who are debarred by the Ministry of Defence from holding any
type of commission in the Defence Services shall not be eligible for admission
to the examination and if admitted, their candidature will be cancelled.
NOTE
III: In the event of Air Force candidates being suspended from flying training
for failure to learn flying, they would be absorbed in the Navigation/Ground
Duty (Non Tech) Branches of the IAF. This will be subject to availability of
vacancies and fulfilling the laid down qualitative requirements.
(d)
Physical Standards:
Candidates
must be physically fit according to physical standards for admission to Combined
Defence Services Examination (II), 2018 as per guidelines given in Appendix-IV.
CDS 2018 Age Limit
The
aspirants can check the age limit of the CDS 2018 Exam (II) for various posts
in Combined Defence Services from the table below:
CDS Department
|
Age
|
Indian Military Academy
|
not earlier than 2nd July 1995 and not later than 1st July 2000
|
Indian Naval Academy
|
not earlier than 2nd July 1995 and not later than 1st July 2000
|
Indian Air Force Academy
|
20 to 24 years as on 1st July 2019
|
Officers' Training Academy
|
2nd July 1994 and not later than 1st July 2000
|
Officers' Training Academy—(SSC Women Non-Technical Course)
|
not earlier than 2nd July 1994 and not later than 1st July, 2000
|
Gender Requirement for CDS 2 2018
CDS Department
|
Gender
|
Status
|
Indian Military Academy
|
Male
|
Unmarried
|
Indian Naval Academy
|
Male
|
Unmarried
|
Indian Air Force Academy
|
Male
|
Unmarried
|
Officer Training Academy
|
Male
|
Married/Unmarried
|
Officer Training Academy
|
Female
|
Unmarried
|
CDS 2018 Physical Standards:
Candidates
must be physically fit according to physical standards for admission to
Combined Defence Services Examination (II), 2018 as per guidelines:
For Army and Navy Males
Height in centimeters (without
shoes)
|
Weight in Kgs.
|
18 Years
|
20 Years
|
22 Years
|
152
|
44*
|
46
|
47
|
155
|
46
|
48**
|
49
|
157
|
47
|
49
|
50
|
160
|
48
|
50
|
51
|
162
|
50
|
52
|
53
|
165
|
52
|
53
|
55
|
168
|
53
|
55
|
57
|
170
|
55
|
57
|
58
|
173
|
57
|
59
|
60
|
175
|
59
|
61
|
62
|
178
|
61
|
62
|
63
|
180
|
63
|
64
|
65
|
183
|
65
|
67
|
67
|
185
|
67
|
69
|
70
|
188
|
70
|
71
|
72
|
190
|
72
|
73
|
74
|
193
|
74
|
76
|
77
|
195
|
77
|
78
|
79
|
For
Navy 45* and 47**
A ±
10% (for Navy) departure from the average weight given in the Table above is to
be considered within normal limit. However, in individuals with heavy bones and
broad built as well as individuals with thin built but otherwise healthy this
may be relaxed to some extent on merit.
For Air Force Male Candidates
(For
FAT % (<20) of Normal Individuals)
Height in centimeters
|
Age Range of the candidate
|
15-17 Yrs.
|
18-22 Yrs.
|
23- 27 Yrs.
|
28- 32 Yrs.
|
33-37 Yrs.
|
38-42 Yrs.
|
43-47 Yrs.
|
>48 Yrs.
|
152
|
46
|
47
|
50
|
54
|
54
|
54
|
55
|
54
|
153
|
47
|
47
|
51
|
55
|
55
|
54
|
56
|
54
|
154
|
47
|
48
|
51
|
56
|
55
|
55
|
57
|
55
|
155
|
48
|
49
|
52
|
56
|
56
|
56
|
57
|
56
|
156
|
48
|
49
|
53
|
57
|
57
|
56
|
58
|
56
|
157
|
49
|
50
|
54
|
58
|
58
|
57
|
58
|
57
|
158
|
49
|
50
|
54
|
58
|
58
|
58
|
59
|
58
|
159
|
50
|
51
|
55
|
59
|
59
|
59
|
60
|
58
|
160
|
51
|
52
|
56
|
59
|
60
|
59
|
60
|
59
|
161
|
51
|
52
|
56
|
60
|
60
|
60
|
61
|
60
|
162
|
52
|
53
|
57
|
61
|
61
|
61
|
62
|
60
|
163
|
52
|
54
|
58
|
61
|
62
|
61
|
62
|
61
|
164
|
53
|
54
|
59
|
62
|
63
|
62
|
63
|
62
|
165
|
53
|
55
|
59
|
63
|
63
|
63
|
64
|
62
|
166
|
54
|
56
|
60
|
63
|
64
|
64
|
64
|
63
|
167
|
54
|
56
|
61
|
64
|
65
|
64
|
65
|
64
|
168
|
55
|
57
|
61
|
65
|
65
|
65
|
65
|
65
|
169
|
55
|
57
|
62
|
65
|
66
|
66
|
66
|
65
|
170
|
56
|
58
|
63
|
66
|
67
|
67
|
67
|
66
|
171
|
56
|
59
|
64
|
66
|
68
|
67
|
67
|
67
|
172
|
57
|
59
|
64
|
67
|
68
|
66
|
68
|
67
|
173
|
58
|
60
|
65
|
68
|
69
|
69
|
69
|
68
|
174
|
58
|
61
|
66
|
68
|
70
|
69
|
69
|
69
|
175
|
59
|
61
|
66
|
69
|
71
|
70
|
70
|
69
|
176
|
59
|
62
|
67
|
70
|
71
|
71
|
71
|
70
|
177
|
60
|
62
|
68
|
70
|
72
|
72
|
71
|
71
|
178
|
60
|
63
|
69
|
71
|
73
|
72
|
72
|
71
|
179
|
61
|
64
|
69
|
72
|
73
|
73
|
73
|
72
|
180
|
61
|
64
|
70
|
72
|
74
|
74
|
73
|
73
|
181
|
62
|
65
|
71
|
73
|
75
|
75
|
74
|
73
|
182
|
62
|
66
|
72
|
74
|
76
|
75
|
74
|
74
|
183
|
63
|
66
|
72
|
74
|
76
|
76
|
75
|
75
|
184
|
64
|
67
|
73
|
75
|
77
|
77
|
76
|
75
|
185
|
64
|
68
|
74
|
75
|
78
|
77
|
76
|
76
|
186
|
65
|
68
|
74
|
76
|
78
|
78
|
77
|
77
|
187
|
65
|
69
|
75
|
77
|
79
|
79
|
78
|
77
|
188
|
66
|
69
|
76
|
77
|
80
|
80
|
78
|
78
|
189
|
66
|
70
|
77
|
78
|
81
|
80
|
79
|
79
|
190
|
67
|
71
|
77
|
79
|
81
|
81
|
80
|
79
|
191
|
67
|
71
|
78
|
79
|
82
|
82
|
80
|
80
|
192
|
68
|
72
|
79
|
80
|
83
|
82
|
81
|
81
|
193
|
68
|
73
|
79
|
81
|
83
|
83
|
81
|
82
|
The
acceptable weight for Air Force candidates will be ± 10% of the average weight
given above.
For Female Officers’ Training Candidates
Height in centimeters (without
shoes)
|
Weight in Kgs.
|
20 Years
|
25 Years
|
30 Years
|
148
|
39
|
41
|
43
|
150
|
40
|
42
|
43.5
|
153
|
42
|
43.5
|
45
|
155
|
43
|
44
|
46
|
158
|
45
|
46
|
48
|
160
|
46
|
47
|
49
|
163
|
47
|
49
|
51
|
165
|
49
|
51
|
53
|
168
|
50
|
52
|
54
|
Before
the SSB (Service Selection Board) interview the candidate should make sure of
the following pointers:
Visual
Standards for the defence category
Air
Force
Visual
Standards for Navy
- Then the candidate can request for Review Medical Board (RMB)
within one day of completion of AMB. Candidates declared unfit by AMB will be
intimated by the President AMB about procedure of challenging the findings of
AMB.
- The candidate will also be intimated that holding RMB will be
granted at the discretion of DGAFMS based on the merit of the case and that RMB
is not a matter of right.The candidate should address the request for RMB if he/she so
desires to ADG Rtg. (CDSE) Army HQ., West Block-III, R.K. Puram, New
Delhi-110066 and DMS(MB)/DGMS (Air), Air HQ, R.K. Puram in case of AF
candidates and a copy of the same is handed over to the President of AMB. The
O/o the DGAFMS will inform the date and place (Delhi and Pune only) where the
candidate will appear for a RMB.
- Permanent body tattoos are allowed only on the inner face of
forearm i.e. from inside of elbow to the wrist and on the reverse side of
palm/back side of hand. If the candidate has any tattoo on any other part of
the body will be barred from further selection process. If there is any Tribe
tattoo or marks on any body part of the candidate as per any existing custom
will be permitted on case-to-case basis.
Mentioned below are the tables for the CDS 2018 candidates:
- The candidates are advised to undergo a preliminary medical
checkup for wax in ears, refractory error of eyes, fungal infection of skin
etc. before reporting for the SSB interview.
- The candidate should have a 6/6 eyesight and a healthy retina.
- The candidates’ chest should be well developed. The minimum
range of expansion after full inspiration should be 5 cms. X-Ray of the chest
is compulsory and will be taken to rule out any disease of the chest.
- The candidates’ body should be free from any disease of bones
and joints.
- The candidate should have no past history of mental breakdown
or fits.
- The candidate should not be suffering from AIDS or any other
STDs.
- The candidates hearing should be normal. A candidate should be
able to hear a forced whisper with each ear at a distance of 610 cms. in a
quiet room. There should be no evidence of present or past disease of the ear,
nose and throat.
- The candidate should have no sign of functional or organic
disease of the heart and blood vessel. Blood pressure should be normal.
- The candidate muscles of abdomen should be well developed and
there should be no enlargement of liver or spleen. Any evidence of disease of
internal organs of the abdomen will be a cause for rejection.
- Un-operated hernias will make a candidate unfit. If operated,
this should have been done at least six months prior to the present examination
and healing is completed.
- Urine examination will be done and any abnormality, if
detected will be a cause for rejection.
- Any disease of the skin, which is likely to cause disability
or disfigurement, will also be a cause for rejection.
- For women candidates if pregnancy is detected at any stage
after selection at SSB or during training will debar the candidates from grant
of commission and cost recovered from the date of joining OTA till the date of
debar on confirmation of pregnancy from Military Hospital Authorities.
- The candidates should have sufficient number of natural and
sound teeth. A minimum of 14 dental points will be acceptable. When 32 teeth
are present, the total dental points are 22. A candidate should not be
suffering from severe pyorrhoea.
- Carrying angle of elbow should not be more than 15° and 18°
among males and females respectively.
- For male candidates the minimum acceptable visual acuity is
distant Vision (corrected) better eye 6/6 and worse eye 6/18. (For Air Force without
glasses only) Myopia of not more than minus 3.5 D and Manifest hypermetropia of
not more than plus 3.5 D including Astigmatism.
- For women candidates the minimum acceptable visual acuity is
distant Vision (corrected) better eye 6/6, worse 6/18, Myopia of not more than
minus 5.5 D including Astigmatism. Manifest hypermetropia of not more than plus
3.5 D including astigmatism.
- Internal examination of the eye will be done by means of
ophthalmoscope to rule out any disease of the eye. A candidate must have good
binocular vision. The colour vision standard will be CP-II for Army. A
candidate should be able to recognise red and green colours.
- Uncorrected without glass 6/12
- Corrected with glass 6/6
- Limits of Myopia -1.5
- Limits of Hypermetropia +1.5
- Binocular vision III
- Limits of Colour Perception I
CDS 2018 Centres of Examination:
The
Examination will be held at the following Centres: AGARTALA, AHMEDABAD, AIZAWL,
ALLAHABAD, BENGALURU, BAREILLY, BHOPAL, CHANDIGARH, CHENNAI, CUTTACK, DEHRADUN,
DELHI, DHARWAD, DISPUR, GANGTOK, HYDERABAD, IMPHAL, ITANAGAR, JAIPUR, JAMMU,
JORHAT, KOCHI, KOHIMA, KOLKATA, LUCKNOW, MADURAI, MUMBAI, NAGPUR, PANAJI (GOA),
PATNA, PORT BLAIR, RAIPUR, RANCHI, SAMBALPUR, SHILLONG, SHIMLA, SRINAGAR,
THIRUVANANTHAPURAM, TIRUPATI, and UDAIPUR AND VISAKHAPATNAM. Applicants should
note that there will be a ceiling on the number of candidates allotted to each
of the centres except Chennai, Delhi, Dispur, Kolkata and Nagpur. Allotment of
Centres will be on the first-apply-first-allot basis and once the capacity of a
particular centre is attained, the same will be frozen. Applicants, who cannot
get a centre of their choice due to ceiling, will be required to choose a
Centre from the remaining ones. Applicants are, thus, advised that they may
apply early so that they could get a Centre of their choice.
NB:
"Notwithstanding the aforesaid provision, Commission reserves the right to
change the Centres at their discretion if the situation demands."
Candidates admitted to the examination will be informed of the time table and
place or places of examination. Candidates should note that no request for
change of centre will be granted.
NOTE:
While filling in his/her online Application form, the candidates should
carefully decide about his/her choice for the centre for the examination. 6 If
any candidate appears at a Centre/Paper other than the one indicated by the
Commission in his/her Admission Certificate, the papers of such a candidate
will not be valued and his/her candidature will be liable to cancellation.
CDS 2018 Selection Procedure
The
UPSC CDS 2 2018 Selection procedure comprises of the following stages: The
Recruitment process is done through written exam, Interview & personality
test for the post of Air Force, IMA, INA & Officers Training Academy. A
Merit list is prepared for those students who obtain good marks in the written
examination and SSB test. The final round of selection is based on the medical
fitness for all available posts.
CDS
2018 Syllabus and Exam Pattern
The
aspirants who are preparing for UPSC CDS 2018 exam should be aware of the
latest CDS 2 exam pattern and Syllabus. Analysis of the pattern and proper
understanding of the important topics of the syllabus will help students score
better in this exam.
CDS 2 2018 Exam Pattern
The
exam pattern of CDS 2 2018 is divided into two sections: Written Examination and
Intelligence & Personality Test Interview. The exam pattern of CDS 2
examination is different for Officer Training Academy and Indian Naval
Academy/Indian Military Academy/Indian Air Force.
CDS Exam Pattern for NAVY/ ARMY/ AIR FORCE
The
exam of Indian Naval Academy/Indian Military Academy/Indian Air Force comprises
of 3 papers, which carry a total of 300 marks. The total duration of each exam
is 2 hours.
Subjects
|
Marks
|
Duration
|
English
|
100
|
2 hours
|
General Knowledge
|
100
|
2 hours
|
Elementary Mathematics
|
100
|
2 hours
|
CDS
Exam Pattern for Officer Training Academy (OTA)
Subjects
|
Marks
|
Duration
|
English
|
100
|
2 hours
|
General Knowledge
|
100
|
2 hours
|
Elementary Mathematics
|
100
|
2 hours
|
CDS 2018 Exam Syllabus
General Knowledge
|
Current affairs of the last 4-5 months from the examination
date.
|
History
|
Physics
|
Biology
|
Geography
|
Political Science
|
English
|
Basic Grammar
|
Synonyms
|
Antonyms
|
Comprehension Solving
|
Error Spotting
|
Para Jumbles
|
Elementary Math
|
Natural numbers
|
Integers
|
Percentages
|
Rational and Real numbers
|
Time & work
|
Time & distance
|
Profit & loss
|
Ratio & proportion
|
Prime and composite numbers
|
Simple and compound interest
|
HCF and LCM
|
Euclidean algorithm
|
Geometry
|
Logarithms
|
Trigonometry
|
Statistics
|
Mensuration
|
CDS 2018 Admit Cards
The
eligible candidates shall be issued an e-Admit Card three weeks before the
commencement of the examination. The e-Admit Card will be made available on the
UPSC website (www.upsc.gov.in) for downloading by candidates. No e-Admit Card
will be sent by post. All the applicants are required to provide valid &
active e-mail I’d. While filling up online application form as the Commission
may use electronic mode for contacting them.
CDS 2018 Previous Year Questions Papers
For
hassle-free preparation, proper practice of the UPSC CDS previous year question
papers is a must. Applicants who are aware of the syllabus and exam pattern of
CDS 2 will easily understand the type of questions which are asked in the exam.
The level of questions and the topics covered in previous exams also helps one
understand the approach to solve the question paper of upcoming CDS exam.
Candidates should keep attempting the previous year papers along with the
regular preparation of CDS exam. This practice will come in handy while solving
the question paper of CDS 2 exam.
CDS 2018 Answer key
Candidates
can check the UPSC CDS 2 2018 answer key from the official website
(ww.upsc.gov.in). The detailed analysis of the CDS 2 examination can be done through
the questions asked in paper and CDS answer keys. With the answer key of CDS,
you will get an idea of how many marks you might expect to score in the
respective exam.
How
to Check the Answer Keys on Official Website? Follow the under-mentioned steps
to check the answer key of CDS 2 Exam: Follow the official link:
http://www.upsc.gov.in/examinations/answer-keys,
Here, you will find a list of the year-wise Answer Keys of CDS for the different
exams. Corresponding to the 'Name of Exam" column, you can check the
Answer Key PDF. Click on the PDF link to open/ download it.
CDS 2018 Cut off
CDS
2018 Cut off will be officially released along with the declaration of result.
Candidates who are going to appear in CDS 2 exam can get an idea of the
expected marks which they should score to clear the upcoming exam.
How
to Check UPSC CDS 2018 Cut Off for II exam? In order to check the cut off of
UPSC CDS 2 Exam, follow the steps mentioned below: Go to the official website -
http://www.upsc.gov.in/. Now click on the
"Examination" link in the header navigation. Go to the drop-down menu
and click on "Cut Off Marks”. You will get a list of all the year-wise cut
off marks. Under the section Year: 2018 you will find the PDF link for CDS 2
2018. Click on this link. A new window will be displayed, containing the Cut
off marks of CDS 2 in a PDF format. You can download this PDF for future use.
CDS 2018 Result
The
CDS 2018 Result Date will be updated here once it is released on the official
site of UPSC. The CDS 2 exam is scheduled to take place on Nov 18th, 2018.
Candidates should keep a check on the result date of CDS exam. The organization
will activate the link for the result where the candidates can check their
result status by entering the required details. How to Check CDS 2 2018 Result
Online? In order to check the result of CDS 2 exam, follow the steps mentioned
below: Log in to the official website of Union Public Service Commission (
www.upsc.gov.in) under the navigation
section, click on "Results" link. Now check for the "UPSC CDS 2
2018 Result" Link and click on it. Fill the required details such as
Registration Number & Date of Birth. Click on the "Submit"
button. Check your Result status corresponding to your Roll number & Name.
CDS 2018 Career Prospects
After
successful completion of training, the candidates pass out in the rank of
Flying Officer and will be entitled to the pay and allowances of the rank. Time
scale promotions to the rank of Flight Lieutenant, Squadron Leader, Wing
Commander and Group Captain are granted on completion of 2 years, 6 years, 13
years and 26 years of successful service respectively. Grant of Group Captain
(select) and higher ranks is only by selections. Promising officers have a fair
chance of getting higher promotions to air ranks—Air Commodore, Air vice
Marshal and Air Marshal.
CDS 2018
Exam Analysis
The
Combined Defence Services (CDS) Exam is conducted 2 times in year under UPSC
for the month of February and November for the wings of Indian armed forces.
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